TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2022

247 questions from the 2022 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which one of the following is NOT a book written by Jeelani Bano?

    • aNaghme ka Safar
    • bAiwam-e-Ghazal
    • cPinjarAnswer
    • dPatharon ki Barish
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Pinjar is a renowned Punjabi novel written by Amrita Pritam, not the Urdu writer Jeelani Bano. Option A: Naghme ka Safar is an authentic literary work authored by Jeelani Bano. Option B: Aiwan-e-Ghazal is one of the most famous Urdu novels written by Jeelani Bano. Option D: Patharon ki Barish is a celebrated collection of short stories written by Jeelani Bano.

82. Q82India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following countries formed the group known as BASIC?

    • aBrazil, Argentina, South Africa, India and Chile
    • bAfghanistan, South Africa, India and Columbia
    • cBrazil, South Africa, India and ChinaAnswer
    • dBrazil, Argentina, South Africa, India and Canada
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the BASIC group is a bloc of four newly industrialised countries formed by an agreement in November 2009 to act jointly on climate change negotiations. B: Brazil AS: South Africa (originally Afrique du Sud in French acronym conventions) I: India C: China Option A: It incorrectly lists Argentina and Chile instead of China. Option B: It incorrectly includes Afghanistan and Columbia instead of Brazil and China. Option D: It incorrectly replaces China with Argentina and Canada.

83. Q83India's foreign policy and international relations

    The Government of India launched the PM-KUSUM scheme in 2019. It is part of which of the following ministries?

    • aMinistry of Forest, Environment and Climate Change
    • bMinistry of New and Renewable EnergyAnswer
    • cMinistry of Family and Health Welfare
    • dMinistry of Social Justice
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) scheme was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy to promote solar pumps and grid-connected solar power plants for farmers. Option A: It is incorrect because the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change deals with environmental protection and conservation policies, not agricultural solarization. Option C: It is incorrect because the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare governs public health, family welfare, and medical education. Option D: It is incorrect because the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment works for the welfare of marginalized and underprivileged sections.

84. Q84India's foreign policy and international relations

    Match the following Bills/Amendments approved by Parliament in 2020 with their respective Ministries: Bills/Amendments Ministry A. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, 1. Finance B. The National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions Bill, 2020. 2. Labour and Employment C. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Second Amendment) Bill, 2020. 3. Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions D. The Companies (Amendment) Bill, 2020. 4. Health and Family Welfare 5. Corporate Affairs Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-4; B-2; C-1, D-5
    • bA-2; B-4; C-1, D-5Answer
    • cA-3; B-2; C-5, D-1
    • dA-4; B-3; C-5, D-1
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Occupational Safety Code was piloted by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, the Allied Healthcare Professions Bill by Health and Family Welfare, the IBC Second Amendment by Finance, and the Companies Amendment Bill by Corporate Affairs. Option A: It wrongly assigns the Occupational Safety Code to Health and the Healthcare Professions Bill to Labour. Option C: It incorrectly attributes the Occupational Safety Code to Personnel and the Companies Amendment Bill to Finance. Option D: It incorrectly links the Allied Healthcare Professions Bill to Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

85. Q85Polity in the news: new committees, commissions of inquiry and cases in the courts

    Match the following Women Chief Ministers with their respective states: Women Chief Minister State A. Sucheta Kripalani 1. Goa B. Nandini Satpathy 2. Assam C. Syeda Anwera Taimur 3. Uttar Pradesh D. Sashikala Kakodkar 4. Odisha. 5. Maharashtra Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-4; B-3; C-1; D-5
    • bA-3; B-4; C-2; D-5
    • cA-5; B-2; C-3; D-1
    • dA-3; B-4; C-2; D-1Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because it correctly matches each woman Chief Minister with the state she served as head of government. Sucheta Kripalani: Uttar Pradesh Nandini Satpathy: Odisha Syeda Anwara Taimur: Assam Shashikala Kakodkar: Goa Option A: It incorrectly pairs Sucheta Kripalani with Odisha and Nandini Satpathy with Uttar Pradesh. Option B: It mistakenly attributes Shashikala Kakodkar to Maharashtra, a state that has never had a woman Chief Minister. Option C: It erroneously places Sucheta Kripalani in Maharashtra and Nandini Satpathy in Assam.

86. Q86What an economy is measured by

    Which of the following sector/sectors showed positive growth based on real Gross Value Added in 2020-21?

    • aMining and Quarrying sector
    • bTrade, Hotels, Transport, Communication and Services related to Broadcasting
    • cManufacturing sector
    • dAgriculture, Forestry and Fishing sectorAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing sector was the sole major productive sector that recorded positive real GVA growth in 2020-21, sustained by favorable monsoons and unhindered agricultural operations during COVID-19 lockdowns. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing GVA growth in 2020-21: +3.6 percent Mining and Quarrying GVA growth in 2020-21: -8.5 percent Manufacturing GVA growth in 2020-21: -7.2 percent Trade, Hotels, Transport, Communication GVA growth in 2020-21: -18.2 percent Option A: Mining and Quarrying suffered a sharp negative contraction due to nationwide industrial restrictions. Option B: Trade, Hotels, Transport, and Communication contracted the most severely due to mobility controls and contact restrictions. Option C: Manufacturing contracted significantly because of supply chain disruptions and plant closures.

87. Q87What an economy is measured by

    The Human Development Index is an indication of ___.

    • aIncome, Health, EducationAnswer
    • bIncome, Health, Trade
    • cHealth, Education, Nutrition
    • dIncome, Health, Imports
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Human Development Index combines three essential dimensions of human capability: income for standard of living, health for longevity, and education for knowledge. Option B: Incorrect because international trade is an economic transaction category, not an HDI constituent index. Option C: Incorrect because it excludes income, which is a mandatory pillar of the index. Option D: Incorrect because imports are trade statistics unrelated to human development index parameters.

88. Q88What an economy is measured by

    Which of the following sector(s)showed positive growth in Real Gross Value-Added terms in 2020-21 ?

    • aMining and Quarrying Sector
    • bTrade, Hotels, Transport, Communication and Services related to Broadcasting
    • cManufacturing Sector
    • dAgriculture, Forestry and Fishing SectorAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the agriculture, forestry and fishing sector was the only major productive sector that recorded positive growth of over 3% in Real Gross Value Added during 2020-21, supported by favourable monsoons and exemptions during COVID-19 lockdowns. Option A: Mining and quarrying contracted sharply due to pandemic-related curbs and halted industrial demand. Option B: Trade, hotels, transport, and communication suffered the steepest contraction of over 15% due to travel restrictions and contact-intensive service shutdowns. Option C: Manufacturing contracted significantly during the year due to factory closures and supply chain disruptions.

89. Q89Economic thought: the thinkers, the schools and the Nobel prize

    ____ refers to how sensitive the demand for a good is to changes in other economic variables, such as prices and consumer income. It is calculated as the percent change in the quantity demanded divided by a percent change in another economic variable.

    • aInelasticity of demand
    • bImmature demand
    • cElasticity of demandAnswer
    • dMature demand
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because elasticity of demand is defined as the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in any of its determinants, such as price, price of related goods, or income, calculated as percentage change in quantity demanded divided by percentage change in the independent variable. Option A: Inelasticity of demand is a specific condition where elasticity is less than one, not the general concept or formula of responsiveness. Option B: Immature demand is a marketing life-cycle term with no mathematical definition regarding responsiveness to economic variables. Option D: Mature demand describes a stabilized stage of market product adoption rather than an elasticity metric.

90. Q90Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    During which five-year plan was phase of heavy industrialization initiated?

    • aSecond Five-Year PlanAnswer
    • bFirst Five-Year Plan
    • cThird Five-Year Plan
    • dSixth Five-Year Plan
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), based on the Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy, formally initiated India's phase of rapid heavy industrialization. Option B: First Five-Year Plan focused overwhelmingly on agriculture, price stability, and irrigation to meet post-partition shortages. Option C: Third Five-Year Plan sought self-reliance and sustained agriculture alongside heavy industry, continuing rather than initiating the phase. Option D: Sixth Five-Year Plan focused on poverty eradication, employment expansion, and technological modernization.

91. Q91Population, poverty and work

    More than half of India's multidimensionally poor population lives in the following states: A. Bihar B. Jharkhand C. Maharashtra D. Madhya Pradesh E. Uttar Pradesh Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, C, D & E only
    • bA, B, C & E only
    • cA, B, D & E onlyAnswer
    • dA, B & C only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because according to multidimensional poverty estimations in India, the four states of Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh together account for over half of the country's multidimensionally poor population. Option A: It includes Maharashtra, which has a significantly lower burden of multidimensional poverty, and omits Jharkhand. Option B: It mistakenly replaces Madhya Pradesh with Maharashtra. Option D: It omits Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, failing to account for the majority of the poor population.

92. Q92Population, poverty and work

    All public sector and private sector establishments that employ 10 or more hired workers are called ___.

    • asmall scale industry
    • bservice sector
    • cinformal sector establishments
    • dformal sector establishmentsAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector defines the formal or organised sector as all public sector entities and private establishments employing 10 or more hired workers. Option A: Small scale industry is defined primarily by capital investment thresholds in plant and machinery, not solely by an employment threshold of 10 workers. Option B: Service sector refers to an economic activity category producing intangible value, irrespective of unit size or worker count. Option C: Informal sector establishments comprise unincorporated private enterprises employing fewer than 10 total workers.

93. Q93Population, poverty and work

    "Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalaya Yojana" is part of

    • aMinistry of Rural DevelopmentAnswer
    • bMinistry of Social Justice and Empowerment
    • cMinistry of Communication
    • dMinistry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana is a placement-linked rural youth skill initiative implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development as part of DAY-NRLM. Option B: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment manages social defense and welfare for scheduled castes and disabled persons, not this scheme. Option C: Ministry of Communication oversees telecommunication and postal networks and has no involvement with rural skilling missions. Option D: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises manages entrepreneurship and enterprise schemes rather than this rural livelihood initiative.

94. Q94Population, poverty and work

    The Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) was launched during Prime Ministership of:

    • aManmohan SinghAnswer
    • bRajiv Gandhi
    • cAtal Bihari Vajpayee
    • dP.V. Narasimha Rao
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because JNNURM was formally inaugurated on 3 December 2005 by the then Prime Minister of India, Dr. Manmohan Singh, under the UPA-I government. Option B: It was launched in 2005, whereas Rajiv Gandhi was Prime Minister from 1984 to 1989. Option C: It was launched in 2005, whereas Atal Bihari Vajpayee demitted office in May 2004. Option D: It was launched in 2005, whereas P.V. Narasimha Rao was Prime Minister from 1991 to 1996.

95. Q95Agriculture in the Indian economy

    For how many Kharif crops did the Prime Minister Adarsh Gram Yojana Cardinal Committee increase the Minimum Support Prices for the 2022-23 marketing season?

    • a4 Kharif crops
    • b14 Kharif cropsAnswer
    • c24 Kharif crops
    • dAll Kharif crops
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the government approved the Minimum Support Prices for 14 mandated Kharif crops for the marketing season 2022-23 to ensure remunerative prices to growers. Mandated Kharif crops under MSP: 14 Marketing season: 2022-23 Option A: 4 Kharif crops is an incorrect count as MSP covers a much broader basket of 14 Kharif crops. Option C: 24 Kharif crops is incorrect because 24 refers roughly to the total number of all seasonal crops across the entire year, not Kharif alone. Option D: All Kharif crops is incorrect because MSP is legally fixed only for 14 specific Kharif crops, not every crop grown during the season.

96. Q96Agriculture in the Indian economy

    The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the increase in the Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for Marketing Season 2022-23 for the following number of Kharif crops :

    • a4 Kharif crops
    • b14 Kharif cropsAnswer
    • c24 Kharif crops
    • dAll Kharif crops
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approves MSP for 14 mandated Kharif crops each year, including paddy, jowar, bajra, ragi, maize, and pulses. Approved Kharif crops under MSP: 14 Marketing season: 2022-23 Option A: 4 Kharif crops understates the actual number of notified Kharif crops. Option C: 24 Kharif crops confuses the total annual MSP-supported crops across all seasons with Kharif alone. Option D: All Kharif crops is inaccurate because the price guarantee applies only to 14 notified Kharif crops.

97. Q97Industry in the Indian economy

    When was the first Industrial Policy of India launched?

    • a1956
    • b1948Answer
    • c1951
    • d1965
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because independent India launched its very first Industrial Policy Resolution on 6 April 1948, laying the foundation for a mixed economic model. 6 April 1948: First Industrial Policy Resolution presented 1951: Industries Development and Regulation Act enacted 30 April 1956: Second Industrial Policy Resolution adopted Option A: 1956 was the year of the second major Industrial Policy Resolution, which focused on heavy industries. Option C: 1951 was when the regulatory framework Act was enacted, not the initial industrial policy launch. Option D: 1965 was marked by external conflicts and drought, with no foundational industrial policy introduced.

98. Q98Industry in the Indian economy

    Which of the following are the major objectives of the Industrial Policy Resolution 1991? A. Abolition of industrial licensing B. Automatic permission for foreign direct investments (FDI) up to 75% per specified industries C. Controlling unfair or restrictive business practices Select the correct answer:

    • aA & C onlyAnswer
    • bA, B and C
    • cB & C only
    • dA & B only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the 1991 policy abolished industrial licensing for most industries and shifted the MRTP Act's focus toward curbing unfair and restrictive trade practices, while automatic FDI approval was capped at 51 percent, not 75 percent. Statement A: Industrial licensing was abolished for all but 18 industries Statement B: Automatic FDI permission was permitted up to 51 percent for priority industries Statement C: Pre-entry scrutiny under the MRTP Act was removed to focus on controlling unfair and restrictive practices Option B: It erroneously includes statement B, which misstates the automatic FDI cap as 75 percent instead of 51 percent. Option C: It includes the incorrect statement B and omits the abolishment of industrial licensing under statement A. Option D: It mistakenly includes statement B despite its incorrect FDI threshold figure.

99. Q99Industry in the Indian economy

    The 'Make in India' effort of Indian Railways has culminated into India's:

    • aFirst high speed train Rajdhani Express
    • bFirst semi high speed train Vande Bharat ExpressAnswer
    • cFirst high speed train Shatabdi Express
    • dFirst semi high speed train Gatimaan Express
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Vande Bharat Express represents the indigenous design and manufacturing milestone of Indian Railways at the Integral Coach Factory, Chennai, under the Make in India programme. Option A: Incorrect because Rajdhani Express was introduced in 1969, decades before the Make in India initiative was created. Option C: Incorrect because Shatabdi Express began service in 1988, long predating the Make in India era. Option D: Incorrect because Gatimaan Express was introduced using regular locomotive-hauled LHB rakes rather than an indigenously developed trainset under Make in India.

100. Q100Industry in the Indian economy

     The ultimate success of Indian Railways' 'Make in India' efforts is:

     • aRajdhani Express, the first high-speed train
     • bVande Bharat Express, the first semi-high-speed trainAnswer
     • cShatabdi Express, as the first high-speed train
     • dGatimaan Express, the first semi-high-speed train
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Vande Bharat Express, originally developed as Train 18, was indigenously designed and built at the Integral Coach Factory in Chennai, serving as the flagship achievement of Indian Railways under Make in India. Option A: Incorrect because Rajdhani Express was introduced in 1969, long before the Make in India campaign commenced. Option C: Incorrect because Shatabdi Express began operations in 1988, decades prior to the Make in India initiative. Option D: Incorrect because Gatimaan Express relied on existing locomotive-hauled coach stock rather than an indigenously engineered trainset developed under Make in India.

101. Q101Money, banking and financial markets

     Which of the following in our country is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

     • a1) Department of Consumer Affairs
     • b2) Expenditure Management Commission
     • c3) Financial Stability and Development Council
     • d4) Reserve Bank of IndiaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Reserve Bank of India is mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, to conduct monetary policy with the primary objective of maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Option A: The Department of Consumer Affairs monitors retail commodity prices and consumer welfare, but does not formulate monetary policy to control inflation. Option B: The Expenditure Management Commission was constituted to suggest reforms for rationalising public expenditure, not to control inflation. Option C: The Financial Stability and Development Council oversees macro-prudential supervision and financial inclusion, not day-to-day monetary policy and price stability.

102. Q102Money, banking and financial markets

     What is meant by Monetary Policy?

     • aThe process by which the Parliament controls the Money supply
     • bThe process by which Central Bank of a country controls the supply of MoneyAnswer
     • cThe process by which IMF controls the Money supply
     • dThe process by which World Bank controls the money supply
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because monetary policy is the framework through which a country's central bank controls the supply of money, interest rates, and credit availability to maintain price stability and support growth. Option A: attributes monetary control to Parliament, whereas monetary policy is formulated and executed by the central bank. Option C: refers to the International Monetary Fund, an international institution that does not regulate the domestic money supply of individual nations. Option D: refers to the World Bank, which is a development financing institution rather than an authority governing national money supply.

103. Q103Public finance and the budget

     The Union Budget for the financial year 2022-23 aimed to strengthen infrastructure in which of the following priority areas? A. Inclusive Development B. PM GatiShakti C. MGNREGP D. Investment, Communication Technology (ICT) Choose the correct answer:

     • aA&B onlyAnswer
     • bA,B,C&D
     • cA,B&C only
     • dC&D only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Union Budget 2022-23 structured its growth priorities around four pillars, explicitly naming PM GatiShakti and Inclusive Development among them. Four pillars of Budget 2022-23: 1. PM GatiShakti 2. Inclusive Development 3. Productivity Enhancement and Investment, Sunrise Opportunities, Energy Transition, and Climate Action 4. Financing of Investments Option B: It incorrectly includes MGNREGP and ICT as foundational priority pillars, whereas MGNREGP is an ongoing rural scheme. Option C: It improperly includes MGNREGP, which is an employment program rather than one of the four guiding pillars of the 2022-23 budget. Option D: It omits the primary declared pillars of PM GatiShakti and Inclusive Development entirely.

104. Q104External sector and the world economy

     According to the Export Preparedness Index 2020, the following is NOT a part of the Government of India's schemes for the promotion of exports :

     • aMerchandise Export Scheme
     • bTransport and Marketing Assistance Scheme
     • cTrade Infrastructure for Exports Scheme
     • dPrimary Goods Exports SchemeAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because there is no Government of India initiative named Primary Goods Exports Scheme; the Export Preparedness Index 2020 evaluated institutional export support mechanisms such as MEIS, TMA, and TIES. Option A: The Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) was an active foreign trade incentive scheme assessed in the report. Option B: The Transport and Marketing Assistance (TMA) scheme exists to aid the export of specified agricultural products. Option C: The Trade Infrastructure for Exports Scheme (TIES) is an existing central initiative to bridge infrastructure gaps in export logistics.

105. Q105External sector and the world economy

     Russia has overtaken which country to become India's second biggest supplier of oil?

     • aQatar
     • bIran
     • cSaudi ArabiaAnswer
     • dUkraine
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because in mid-2022, Russia surpassed Saudi Arabia to become India's second-largest supplier of crude oil, behind only Iraq, driven by heavy discounts on Russian Urals crude. Option A: Qatar is predominantly a key supplier of liquefied natural gas (LNG) rather than crude oil to India. Option B: Iran was previously a major oil supplier, but Indian imports fell to near zero following US sanctions, long before Russia's surge. Option D: Ukraine is an exporter of agricultural goods like sunflower oil and not a supplier of crude oil.

106. Q106External sector and the world economy

     Arrange the following countries in descending order of the highest to the lowest resources received by India through Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in 2021-22: A. United States of America B. Mauritius C. Singapore D. Netherlands Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, D, C
     • bD, B, A, C
     • cB, A, C, D
     • dC, A, B, DAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Singapore was the top source of FDI equity inflows into India during 2021-22, followed by the United States, Mauritius, and the Netherlands. Singapore: 27.01 percent share of total inflows United States of America: 17.94 percent share of total inflows Mauritius: 15.98 percent share of total inflows Netherlands: 7.86 percent share of total inflows Option A: Places the United States ahead of Singapore, which received less equity inflow than Singapore. Option B: Places the Netherlands in the top position, whereas it ranked fourth among these four nations. Option C: Places Mauritius first, whereas it ranked third behind Singapore and the United States.

107. Q107External sector and the world economy

     Arrange the following major sources of India's Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) during 2021-22 from highest to lowest : A. United States of America B. Mauritius C. Singapore D. Netherlands Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, D, C
     • bD, B, A, C
     • cB, A, C, D
     • dC, A, B, DAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because according to official DPIIT data for the financial year 2021-22, the top source countries of FDI equity inflows into India ranked Singapore first, followed by the United States of America, Mauritius, and the Netherlands. Singapore: 15.89 billion US dollars (around 27%) United States of America: 10.55 billion US dollars (around 18%) Mauritius: 9.39 billion US dollars (around 16%) Netherlands: 4.62 billion US dollars (around 8%) Option A: A, B, D, C incorrectly places USA ahead of Singapore and Netherlands ahead of Mauritius. Option B: D, B, A, C incorrectly places Netherlands as the largest investor. Option C: B, A, C, D incorrectly places Mauritius at the top.

108. Q108External sector and the world economy

     In July 2019, India became the fifth largest investor in Africa with cumulative investments of more than ___.

     • a$92 billion
     • b$54 billionAnswer
     • c$65 billion
     • d$78 billion
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because in July 2019, official statements by the Ministry of External Affairs highlighted that India had emerged as the fifth-largest investor in Africa, with cumulative investments surpassing 54 billion US dollars. Option A: $92 billion is substantially higher than the documented cumulative figure for 2019. Option C: $65 billion represents an incorrect estimation. Option D: $78 billion overstates India's cumulative investments in Africa as of mid-2019.

109. Q109External sector and the world economy

     The official mandate of the IMF includes : A. To promote international monetary cooperation. B. To promote exchange stability. C. To eliminate foreign exchange restrictions. D. To provide long-term loans for the projects. E. To facilitate the expansion and balanced growth of international trade. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, C, D & E
     • bA, B & D only
     • cA, B, C & E onlyAnswer
     • dC, D & E only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the International Monetary Fund focuses on macroeconomic stability, international monetary cooperation, exchange rate stability, and facilitating trade, whereas providing long-term loans for development projects is the mandate of the World Bank. Option A: It incorrectly includes statement D, as funding long-term development projects is the function of the World Bank rather than the IMF. Option B: It omits statements C and E, both of which are core statutory purposes of the IMF under Article I of its Articles of Agreement. Option D: It includes statement D and omits foundational mandates of the IMF such as promoting monetary cooperation and exchange stability.

110. Q110External sector and the world economy

     Which of the following are called the Twins of Bretton Woods?

     • aIMF & IBRDAnswer
     • bIMF & WTO
     • cIBRD & WHO
     • dADB & WHO
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) were both established jointly during the Bretton Woods Conference in July 1944. Bretton Woods Conference: July 1944 Institutions created: IMF and IBRD Option B: WTO was established in 1995 as the successor to GATT, not during the Bretton Woods Conference. Option C: WHO is a public health organization created in 1948 with no relation to Bretton Woods. Option D: ADB was founded in 1966 and WHO in 1948, neither originating from Bretton Woods.

111. Q111External sector and the world economy

     If the Balance of Payments of a country is adverse, then which institution will help that country?

     • aWorld Bank
     • bWTO
     • cIMFAnswer
     • dAsian Development Bank
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the International Monetary Fund (IMF) was specifically designed to stabilize the international monetary system and provide financial support to member nations facing balance of payments difficulties. Option A: World Bank provides long-term loans for development and poverty alleviation projects rather than short-term balance of payments assistance. Option B: WTO is a regulatory body for international trade rules and does not dispense financial aid. Option D: Asian Development Bank offers project financing for regional development rather than global balance of payments stabilization.

112. Q112External sector and the world economy

     Which country become the 4th new member of the New Development Bank 2021?

     • aBangladesh
     • bMyanmar
     • cUruguay
     • dEgyptAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Egypt was officially admitted as the fourth new member of the New Development Bank in December 2021, following the expansion approved by the bank's Board of Governors. First new member: Bangladesh, admitted September 2021 Second new member: United Arab Emirates, admitted September 2021 Third new member: Uruguay, admitted September 2021 Fourth new member: Egypt, admitted December 2021 Option A: Bangladesh was among the first batch of admitted new members in September 2021, not the fourth. Option B: Myanmar is not a member country of the New Development Bank. Option C: Uruguay was admitted in the initial batch alongside Bangladesh and the UAE, preceding Egypt.

113. Q113External sector and the world economy

     ___ leads in sugar exports in the world.

     • aIndia
     • bBrazilAnswer
     • cEgypt
     • dThailand
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Brazil is the world's largest exporter and producer of sugarcane and refined sugar, supplying a significant majority of the global trade volume. Option A: India is one of the largest producers and consumers of sugar, but domestic consumption limits its export volume below Brazil. Option C: Egypt is a net importer of sugar that relies heavily on imports to meet domestic demand. Option D: Thailand is a major global sugar exporter ranking after Brazil, but it does not lead the global export market.

114. Q114Environment and sustainable development

     Organic farming helps in ___ development in agriculture.

     • asignificant
     • bintegrated
     • csustainableAnswer
     • dlocal
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because organic farming relies on natural ecological cycles and avoids synthetic chemicals, ensuring sustainable agricultural development without degrading soil or water resources. Option A: Significant is a vague descriptive term rather than an established ecological or agricultural development framework. Option B: Integrated refers to integrated farming systems or pest management rather than the core principle of chemical-free agriculture. Option D: Local describes geographic scale rather than the environmental sustainability that defines organic farming.

115. Q115STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

     The Telangana Electric Vehicle & Energy.. Storage Policy 2020-2030 provides 100% exemption of road tax & registration fee for different variety of electric vehicles upto certain number of vehicles purchased and registered in Telangana. Match the following types of vehicles with their limits of exemptions: Type of Electric Exemption upto Vehicle A. Two Wheelers 1. For first 20,000 vehicles ' B. Three-Seater 2. For first 10,000 Auto-Rickshaws vehicles C. Buses 3. For the first 2,00,000 vehicles D. Private Cars 4. For the first 500 vehicles E. Light Goods Carriers 5. For the first 5,000 vehicles 6. For the first 12,000 vehicles Choose the correct answer

     • aA-6; B-1; C-2; D-5; E-4
     • bA-3; B-4; C-6; D-2; E-1
     • cA-3; B-1; C-4; D-5; E-2Answer
     • dA-6; B-3; C-2; D-4; E-5
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Telangana Electric Vehicle and Energy Storage Policy 2020-2030 grants road tax and registration fee exemptions based on specific volume thresholds for each category of electric vehicle registered in the state. Two Wheelers: First 2,00,000 vehicles Three-Seater Auto-Rickshaws: First 20,000 vehicles Buses: First 500 vehicles Private Cars: First 5,000 vehicles Light Goods Carriers: First 10,000 vehicles Option A: Incorrectly maps two-wheelers to 12,000 vehicles and buses to 10,000 vehicles. Option B: Associates auto-rickshaws with 500 vehicles and buses with 12,000 vehicles. Option D: Inaccurately assigns two-wheelers to 12,000 and private cars to 500.

116. Q116The Earth in the solar system

     Which of the following are likely to happen when a major solar storm reaches Earth? A. GPS and compass (navigation) systems are likely to fail. B. Tsunamis are likely to occur in regions close to the equator. C. Power grids are likely to be destroyed. D. Intense auroras are likely to form across the globe. E. Wildfires are likely to occur across the globe. F. Satellite orbits are likely to be disrupted. G. Shortwave radio communications in aircraft flying over polar regions are likely to be affected. Which of the above are correct?

     • aA, B, D, E
     • bC, C, E, F G
     • cA, C, D, F, GAnswer
     • dA, B, C, D, E, F, G
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because severe geomagnetic storms directly disrupt radio transmissions, induce currents that damage electrical grids, interfere with satellite orbits and GPS, and trigger intense auroral displays, but they do not cause tsunamis or wildfires. Option A: Includes tsunamis and wildfires, which are seismic and meteorological or ecological events unaffected by geomagnetic activity. Option B: Includes wildfires and erroneously lists C twice while omitting crucial communication and navigation disruptions. Option D: Includes tsunamis and wildfires, neither of which is caused by space weather phenomena.

117. Q117Oceans

     Which of the following are major divisions of Cocean floor ? A. Continental shelf B. Continental slope C. Deep sea plain D.Ocean arcs E. Ocean deeps Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, C, D & E
     • bA, B, C & D only
     • cA, B, C & E onlyAnswer
     • dA, B, D & E only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because standard oceanographic classification divides the ocean floor into four major relief units: continental shelf, continental slope, deep sea plain, and ocean deeps or trenches. Option A: Includes ocean arcs, which are localized tectonic or volcanic features rather than one of the primary macro-divisions of the ocean floor. Option B: Includes ocean arcs while omitting ocean deeps, which are universally classified as a primary division. Option D: Omits deep sea plains, which form the most extensive major division of the ocean basin.

118. Q118Oceans

     Which of the following are the main divisions of the ocean floor? A. Continental Shelf B. Continental Slope C. Deep Sea Plain D. Ocean Trenches E. Ocean Deeps Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, C, D & E
     • bA, B, C & D only
     • cA, B, C & E onlyAnswer
     • dA, B, D & E only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because standard oceanography outlines four main divisions of the ocean basin: the continental shelf, continental slope, deep sea plain, and ocean deeps. Under this specific list, ocean trenches and ocean deeps refer to the same category, making A, B, C, and E the intended standard group. Option A: Redundantly counts both trenches and deeps as separate primary units, which does not match the standard four-unit classification. Option B: Excludes ocean deeps, which are a major fundamental unit of the ocean floor. Option D: Excludes the deep sea plain, which is the most widespread major division of the ocean floor.

119. Q119Oceans

     The Sargasso Sea is located in :

     • aNorth Indian Ocean
     • bNorth Atlantic OceanAnswer
     • cSouth Atlantic Ocean
     • dSouth Indian Ocean
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Sargasso Sea is an open-ocean sea defined by ocean currents within the North Atlantic Gyre, bounded by the Gulf Stream, North Atlantic Current, Canary Current, and North Atlantic Equatorial Current. Option A: The North Indian Ocean contains the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal, not the Sargasso Sea. Option C: The South Atlantic Ocean lies south of the equator and forms a separate circulation system. Option D: The South Indian Ocean contains no such gyre-enclosed sea of pelagic sargassum.

120. Q120Soils, vegetation and wildlife

     The dry aromatic roots of which of the following crops are used to make mats, curtains and fads etc.?

     • aPatchouli
     • bMint
     • cVetiverAnswer
     • dPalmarosa grass
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because vetiver (Chrysopogon zizanioides, commonly known as khus) produces long, fibrous, spongy roots that contain fragrant essential oils and are woven into cooling mats, screens, blinds, and fans. Option A: Patchouli is grown primarily for its aromatic leaves and shoots rather than its roots. Option B: Mint is cultivated for its aromatic leaves and menthol oil, not for fibrous root weaving. Option D: Palmarosa is an aromatic grass harvested for its leaves and flowering tops to extract geraniol oil.